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One Question: What do you think is the reason for these many people who cut back on their masturbation, and find after a few weeks that their gyne has reduced, when they've changed nothing else, and they've had the same amount of gyne for years?
Answer that question in a way that makes sense, and we may be inclined to agree with you.
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Show me serious numbers of people who have made this association- as in hundreds of people, not just a couple of people and rule out all other possible factors that may cause their gynecomastia.
If you cannot, it could quite easily be a merely circumstantial connection, as I believe it to be.
There are so many factors affecting gynecomastia that I very much doubt whether any individual can say that it is the only thing they have changed, as you have stated.
If they change their alcohol intake that my be a factor, if they change their diet that may be a factor, if they have increased or decreased their body weight that may be a factor, if they are in puberty or reaching the end of puberty that may be a factor, changes in medication of various types may be a factor etc etc etc.
You have to establish connection/associations. I am not being unfair; I am using the same criteria that is used by the medical profession.
In presenting my position I am presenting the facts as proven in studies.
It has been proven is that hypogonadism lowers libido and that sperm production has nothing to do with lowering testosterone or hypogonadism.
As I have said, if you were progressively becoming hypogonadal via masturbation either via a lowering of testosterone or an increasing in estrogen, you would progressively become uninterested in masturbation. You would not engage in excessive masturbation or excessive amounts of sex (biochemically the two are exactly the same), quite the reverse is true for men who are hypogonadal..
Now you may not think my answer is satisfactory, I am sure from your perspective it is not. However I have been so good as to answer your question. So can you please now answer the questions that I set out more than three posts ago in a detailed and reasoned manner?
Again so you do not have to go back and find them I’ll paste them in a mail yet again.
here you are;
If someone was masturbating often and the biochemical reaction occured that you are talking about (testosterone deficiency and elevated estrogen), they would start to take less and less interested in masturbating and sex in general...it would never become acute.
So if you can accept that someone who has a depletion of testosterone over time, would not wish to be involved in acute sexual activity, such as masturbation. And if you can accept that someone who has a build-up estrogen over time, would not wish to be involved in acute sexual activity, such as masturbation. And if you can accept that sperm depletion does not affect testosterone production-
Then you have just negated the entire theory!
Or do you not accept these facts?
Do you not accept the mountainous volume of symptomatic evidence collated from across the world over the last one hundred years, that indicates the complete opposite of your "theory" ?
Can you please answer the questions?
If you do not accept the above, can you please give a detailed and reasoned explanation as to why?
Furthermore;
Can you produce a single article, (just one article, I’m not asking for much) from any endocrinologist (hormone expert), from anywhere in the world you concurs with this theory?
Can you produce a single, (just one article, I’m not asking for much) from any endocrinologist where masturbation is given amongst the causes of hypogonadism or gynecomastia to support this theory, either one will do, i don't mind which?
In the absence, of any evidence whatsoever (I no for a fact you will not produce any) backing up your theory. Will you explain, if you haven’t already in a detailed manner why ALL the symptomatic evidence, which I have provided, shows the complete opposite of this theory?
If you cannot do that, will you accept that the theory is complete bunkum?